The passage you quote with Jesus bearing testimony to Himself you equate to the Holy Bible bearing testimony to itself. You say the latter is valid because it contains the words of the former.

I’m sorry, I’ve read over what I wrote and can find nowhere that I can imagine being interpreted in such a way. You will need to quote the relevant part of my post to show where you feel I have made this correlation.

It seems entirely clear to me that my basis for asserting that Scripture’s testimony about itself is valid is on the basis that it is God’s word. There is no higher standard by which it can be judged—and I even included a citation to this effect: Hebrews 6:13. You say that “the book cannot bear witness to itself, it needs something else to point to it having authority.” But this is just a statement of what you believe; it is not a reason to believe it! In fact, it is a plainly false statement, refuted by Scripture itself. What basis do you have to say that Scripture cannot bear witness about itself? And what authority do you then believe can bear witness about it? What authority do you believe is so high that even God’s own word must be subjected to it in order to be proved true?

Regards,
Bnonn

In what way have I equated Scripture to the person of Christ? I have equated it with his word and testimony; not with his person.

Regards,
Bnonn